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#1 |
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Feb 2007
24×33 Posts |
This may be a trivial one but well:
Yesterday morning at breakfast my son was deceived since opennig a new cereal box he found one of the 4 CD's to collect which he already got before. Now for the question: Given that in the boxes of some cereal brand there is hidden one of N different objects to collect, and each time you buy a box you get any one of the N with the same probability 1/N, how many boxes to you have to buy "in the mean" to have a complete collection ? |
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#2 |
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(loop (#_fork))
Feb 2006
Cambridge, England
23·11·73 Posts |
This is a standard problem (usually called coupon-collecting)
To get from a collection of 0 to a collection of 1 takes 1 box To get from 1 to 2 takes N/(N-1) boxes, since the chance of getting a new toy is (N-1)/N To get from 2 to 3 takes N/(N-2) ... So it's N * sum(i=1 .. N) 1/i, which is roughly N log N. |
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#3 | |
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Feb 2007
24×33 Posts |
Quote:
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#4 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
194A16 Posts |
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#5 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2×3×13×83 Posts |
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#6 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
647410 Posts |
I'm thinking that:
p + 2p(1-p) + 3p(1-p)^2 + 4p(1-p)^3 +......... must equal 1/p. Is this obvious? I guess we say 1/p = (1-(1-p))^(-1) and use the binomial theorem. Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2007-12-01 at 14:39 |
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#7 | |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
194A16 Posts |
Quote:
S-(1-p)S=p(1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+...) pS=p/(1-(1-p)) S=1/p The point being that this practically follows from the definition of probability. |
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