![]() |
|
|
#1 |
|
Cranksta Rap Ayatollah
Jul 2003
12018 Posts |
I don't know if I should put this somewhere else, the math isn't prime related, and while it's puzzling, I'm not sure it's a puzzle, so to the lounge I went.
Just for fun, I was thinking of a strange little function and playing with its properties, and I ran into a paradox. Define Bn(x) to be the number obtained writing the base-n expansion of x in base-(n+1), for example, B10(23) = 23 base 11 = 25, B10(1.5) = 1 + 5/11 for the sake of clarity (because I don't know how to type subscripts here) let's say B(x) is the common form of the function, so B(x) = B10(x) so here's where I came into the paradox 0.999... = 1 B(1) = 1 B(.999...) = 9/11 + 9/11^2 + 9/11^3 + ... = .9 but since they are equal, you shouldn't be able to put them into a function and get 2 different values if it is because B(x) isn't a well defined function, why isn't it well-defined? |
|
|
|
|
|
#2 | |
|
Aug 2002
26·5 Posts |
I believe it's because
Quote:
0.9999.... can be said to be approaching 1, but it is not equal to 1. |
|
|
|
|
|
|
#4 | ||
|
"Richard B. Woods"
Aug 2002
Wisconsin USA
22×3×641 Posts |
Quote:
Quote:
I think this is what you intended for Bn(x) (with a couple of details I'm throwing in): The value of Bn(x), for n an integer and n > 1, is the base-n representation of the value of x, where the argument x is specified in base-(n+1) representation. B10(23) = the base-10 representation of the number (23 in base-11) = 2 * 11 + 3 = 2 * 10 + 5 = 25. The function argument inside the parentheses is a base-11 number, not a base-10 number. With this, B(1) = 0 * 11 + 1 = 0 * 10 + 1 = 1 and B(.999...) = 9/11 + 9/11^2 + 9/11^3 + ... < 1 There's no paradox, because in base 11, the limit of .999... does not equal 1. Let "A" = the base-11 representation of the sum of 9 + 1. Then in base-11, 1 equals the limit of .AAAAAA..., not the limit of .999999... |
||
|
|
|
|
|
#5 | ||
|
Cranksta Rap Ayatollah
Jul 2003
641 Posts |
Quote:
Quote:
I think the problem here is analogous to making a function f(x) that is equal to the number of letters in the written out name of the number, without the distinction of which language the numbers are in. Since both "1" and "0.999..." are valid decimal expansions, B(x) where x=1 is actually passing 2 values to the function, so 2 values are returned |
||
|
|
|
|
|
#6 | ||||||||||
|
"Richard B. Woods"
Aug 2002
Wisconsin USA
1E0C16 Posts |
Quote:
I wrote that n was an integer, not that Bn(x) or x were integers. So, yes, the latter two can be real-valued. In fact, the specification that n is an integer is just one of the things I threw in, intended to simplify the discussion. There's actually no compelling reason to bar nonintegral n. Quote:
Quote:
The "23" is a base-11 representation of a number, whose base-10 representation is "25". Actually, both "23" and "25" are abbreviations. If we had subscripts available, we'd have to have an "11" subscript on "23" and a "10" subscript on "25" to indicate that they're written in different bases. Or write "23 base-11" and "25 base-10" or something like that. Quote:
Quote:
Your function isn't really mapping numbers to numbers. It's mapping representations of numbers in one base to their corresponding representations in a different base. Quote:
Quote:
That's the sort of statment that can lead to confusion. It's true, but both "1" and "0.999..." are also valid base-11 expansions, and valid base-12 expansions, and so on. See what I said above about abbreviations. We ordinary assume that all written numbers are in base-10, but since your function explicitly violates that assumption, we have to keep track of what base we're using to represent each number in this discussion. Quote:
|
||||||||||
|
|
|
|
|
#7 |
|
May 2003
25×3 Posts |
I noticed someone said that 0.999... isn't 1, but it can be approached by it.
Actually, the proof that 0.999... actually IS 1, is very simple : let x=0.999... then 10x=9.999... 10x - x = 9x = 9.99... - 0.999 = 9 9x = 9 so x=1 |
|
|
|
|
|
#8 |
|
Jun 2003
The Texas Hill Country
32×112 Posts |
Since TravisT has stated that he is defining a mapping, I don't think that his function is defined over the reals. It is defined only on a subset of the rationals (where the denominator is a power of the base). Further, it is defined by first mapping each member of the set onto the sum of elements from a basis of the form i*b^n where the i are integers in the range 0 to b-1.
Viewed from the perspective of set theory, the trans-base mapping is well defined, but it is not distributive. E.g., M(5+5) != M(5) + M(5) when b=5+5. However, TravisT is expecting other properties of a group which is defined with distributive operators to hold here also. |
|
|
|
|
|
#9 | ||
|
"Richard B. Woods"
Aug 2002
Wisconsin USA
22·3·641 Posts |
Quote:
(Note that in the following, the function argument is specified as the symbol "pi".) B5(pi) = {base-5 representation of pi} = 3.032... Bpi(pi) = 1 Quote:
|
||
|
|
|
|
|
#10 | |
|
Jun 2003
The Texas Hill Country
32×112 Posts |
Quote:
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
#11 |
|
"Richard B. Woods"
Aug 2002
Wisconsin USA
22·3·641 Posts |
Can't an infinite representation exist even if it's not possible to physically record all its digits in finite time/space? In a finite time, one can produce any finite portion of the base-whatever representation of pi, just not the whole thing.
|
|
|
|
![]() |
| Thread Tools | |
Similar Threads
|
||||
| Thread | Thread Starter | Forum | Replies | Last Post |
| Coin Paradox | petrw1 | Puzzles | 1 | 2015-02-06 23:17 |
| Berry paradox without paradox. | victor | Puzzles | 7 | 2008-04-08 22:34 |
| mathematical paradox? | ixfd64 | Lounge | 21 | 2005-09-29 21:17 |