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#1 |
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Jun 2003
The Texas Hill Country
32×112 Posts |
Prove that the product of 4 consecutive positive integers cannot be a perfect square.
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#2 |
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Jun 2003
2·7·113 Posts |
one of the numbers is divisible by 4 and one by 2. 8 is not a perfect square.
Another question. Is there a value n, n>2, such that the product of n consecutive integers is a perfect square. Last fiddled with by Citrix on 2006-07-14 at 17:08 |
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#3 | |
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Jun 2003
5,051 Posts |
Quote:
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#4 | |
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Bamboozled!
"πΊππ·π·π"
May 2003
Down not across
10,753 Posts |
Quote:
Paul Last fiddled with by xilman on 2006-07-14 at 17:11 |
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#5 |
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Jun 2003
62E16 Posts |
Axn1, you are right, I did not think of that.
Xilman, if you do not include zero, what t!/(t-n)! can ever be a prefect square? |
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#6 |
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Jun 2003
10011101110112 Posts |
n*(n+1)*(n+2)*(n+3) = n^4 + 6*n^3 + 11*n^2 + 6*n ((n+1)*(n+2)-1)^2 = n^4 + 6*n^3 + 11*n^2 + 6*n + 1 So, we need two perfect squares with a difference of 1. 0 and 1, anyone? |
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#7 | |
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Aug 2002
Buenos Aires, Argentina
2×683 Posts |
Quote:
Since the difference between any member of this set is not greater than 3, the gcd of two of these numbers cannot be greater than 3. This means that any prime factor greater than 3, can appear only in one number of the set. It is possible that this prime factor can appear twice (or even number of times) in a particular number, but since there is at most one square number inside the set, there must be a prime > 3 that appear an odd number of times in a member of the set and does not appear in the other members of the set. This implies that the product cannot be a perfect square. Last fiddled with by alpertron on 2006-07-20 at 14:10 |
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#8 |
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"William"
May 2003
New Haven
236610 Posts |
alpertron:
I don't see why your approach would prevent the four consecutive numbers from being 27*a[sup]2[/sup] 8*b[sup]2[/sup] c[sup]2[/sup] 6*d[sup]2[/sup] |
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#9 | |
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Aug 2002
Buenos Aires, Argentina
55616 Posts |
Quote:
27 a2+1 = 8 b2 27 a2+1 = 0 (mod 8) 27 a2 = -1 (mod 8) 27 a2 = 7 (mod 8) 3 a2 = 7 (mod 8) a2 = 5 (mod 8) but a2 must be 0 or 1 (mod 8) If you exchange the first and third members of the sequence you get: 27 a2-1 = 8 b2 27 a2-1 = 0 (mod 8) 27 a2 = 1 (mod 8) 3 a2 = 1 (mod 8) a2 = 3 (mod 8) so it is also invalid. Since 32 = 1 (mod 8), the number 27 cannot be replaced by 27*32k. Last fiddled with by alpertron on 2006-07-21 at 15:15 |
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#10 | |
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Bronze Medalist
Jan 2004
Mumbai,India
40048 Posts |
Quote:
:smile: None of the above answers are convincing enough. Personally I would prefer a more rigorous proof, a real hard boiled one, with no ambiguity or speculation. HINT: let the product be P, then in all cases it is one short of a perfect square Thus P + 1 = a perfect square and I leave it up to all to prove this I will wait overnight and then will give a rigorous proof tomorrow. Mally
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#11 | |
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Aug 2005
Brazil
2·181 Posts |
Quote:
n*(n+1)*(n+2)*(n+3) = n^4 + 6*n^3 + 11*n^2 + 6*n ((n+1)*(n+2)-1)^2 = n^4 + 6*n^3 + 11*n^2 + 6*n + 1 |
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