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Old 2005-08-26, 17:07   #45
xilman
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"𒉺𒌌𒇷𒆷𒀭"
May 2003
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mfgoode

Can anyone kindly explain to me how do we arrive at 0^0 =0 ?
when a^0 always = 1 Surely by continuity it should also be eqaul to 1 when a = 0?
2) By convention 0! =1 and 1! is also equal to 1. so 0 = 1 A paradox!
Mally
Both of these are jokes, right?

1) 0^a = 0 for all a>0.

As Bob has said, 0^0 is usually left undefined, but can be defined as either 0 or 1, depending which limit makes more sense in any given context. Almost always lim a->0 (a^0) is more useful in practice than lim a->0+ (0^a), not least because 0^a is undefined for a<0.

2) seems to be a variation on the frequently produced "paradoxes" based on the equality (-1)*(-1) = 1 * 1. A neat one, that I've not seen before.


Paul
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Old 2005-08-26, 17:11   #46
trilliwig
 
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Oct 2004
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ET_
Sounds like Winston Churchill's quote about his "twin nation"...

Something like "They are not different from us... apart from language"
"Two nations divided by a common language". :D
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Old 2005-08-28, 15:05   #47
mfgoode
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Jan 2004
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It was a great pleasure indeed receiving replies from both of you Bob and
Paul whom I consider to be the stalwarts of m/forum.
I got my information strangely enough from ‘The Penguin Dictionary of Curious and Interesting Numbers by David Wells. This book is a must for anyone interested in meaningful numbers from -1 and i to Graham’s Number
I have mentioned t his English author before, who has the rare distinction of having been a Cambridge scholar in maths and failing his degree. But he has various other feathers in his cap and each of his books on maths is a masterpiece. I strongly recommend his books.
I advanced his argument as a^0 = 1, so why not 0^0 ?
He says “Not so, 0^a is always zero so by the same argument from continuity 0^0 =0. This is much the same as Paul’s answer.
Regards 0! I came across this beautiful derivation but I cannot recall where and by whom.
If you go down the factorial line from n! you get
n! =n*(n-1)
Similarly 4! =4*(3!) right down the line coming to
2! = 2* (1!)
So 1! = 1! * 0 !.
Thus we take 0! as 1 also to make max. sense and max. use.
The symbol (!) is an operation and not an integer. Hence though the operation yields the same value the integers 0 and 1 cannot be equated.
For more information on the origin and properties of Zero, Garo gave an interesting website earlier on and I give the link to it.
http://www-gap.dcs.st-and.ac.uk/%7Eh...pics/Zero.html
Brahmagupta speaks of 0^2 and sq. rt. 0 also = 0
Another excellent book on zero is ‘The Nothing that IS’---
A Natural History of Zero’ by Robert Kaplan
Oxford Univ. Press. ISBN 0-19=514237-3 (pbk)
Mally.
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