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#12 | |
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Jul 2005
Vaasa, Finland
2×13 Posts |
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And I am not saying that 0 isn't number and that, I wanted to tell why 0 isn't positive nor negative. |
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#13 | |
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∂2ω=0
Sep 2002
República de California
19·613 Posts |
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#14 | |
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Jun 2003
The Texas Hill Country
44116 Posts |
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For example, two non-coincident parallel lines never meet is a "common sense" statement. It is also true in certain (Euclidian) geometries. However, you can create another (non-Euclidian) geometry where they do meet. In this geometry, many other things are not what you might expect. But, since the system is self-consistent, it too is a mathematical system. And you can derive some very interesting results therein. But the point that Dr. Silverman was making is that BY DEFINITION, zero is well defined and required to have certain properties. |
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#15 | |
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Jul 2005
Vaasa, Finland
1A16 Posts |
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#16 | |
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Jun 2003
The Texas Hill Country
44116 Posts |
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But the ONLY reason is ... because IT IS DEFINED that way. |
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#17 | |
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Jul 2005
Vaasa, Finland
2·13 Posts |
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#18 |
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Jun 2005
Near Beetlegeuse
22·97 Posts |
olmari,
I’m afraid that your comment defeats your own argument. By pointing out that zero was invented by being defined exactly as Wacky and Dr. Silverman explained, you have shown that it is clearly not synonymous with “nothing” which, as a concept, already existed. If “nothing” served its purpose as zero, there would have been no need to invent something else. |
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#19 | |
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Jul 2005
Vaasa, Finland
2×13 Posts |
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#20 |
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Jun 2005
Near Beetlegeuse
18416 Posts |
Zero is not “nothing”.
In your post you have used the idea of having nothing, and the idea of not having anything as though they were the same. But since “nothing” is not the same as “no thing”, there is a clear difference between having nothing and not having anything. And yet you use these different philosophical concepts as though they were both exactly equal to zero. When in fact neither of them is even remotely close to zero because they come from different languages. Think of maths as being a language. Zero is a word in that language. Nothing is not a word in the language of maths. So that I can write a mathematical sentence that includes the word 0, but I cannot write a mathematical sentence that includes the word “nothing” or even the concept of “nothing”. I can even define a function that operates on a set that includes the number 0. But the closest I can get to “nothing” in maths is the empty set, and that doesn’t even have a zero in it, and if it did it would no longer be the empty set. Zero is not “nothing”. So whilst you might feel the need to “mark that nothing in some way” you cannot do it in the language of maths. “but REASON is because it is essentially way of marking that you don't have anything” Wrong. When you have zero, that is exactly what you have, zero. And that is very different to not having anything, because you have zero and that is something. Zero is not “nothing”. |
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#21 | |
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∂2ω=0
Sep 2002
República de California
19×613 Posts |
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If you want to quibble endlessly about semantics or how many angels can dance on the head of a pin, I suggest you make a career in politics or theology, respectively. In the meantime, stop wasting everyone else's bandwidth and time. |
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#22 |
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Feb 2005
22×32×7 Posts |
The two definitions of natural numbers have the following nature:
1) Natural numbers are those used for counting things: one, two, three, ... 2) Natural numbers are cardinalities of finite sets. They are zero (the cardinality of empty set), one, two, ... This definition was sold by Burbaki. Which definition is more popular actually depends on the country: e.g. the first is used in Russia, while the second is used in France. But now mathematicians seem to avoid using the concept of "natural number" (unless when it is precisely defined) in favor of "positive" and "non-negative" integers. Last fiddled with by maxal on 2005-07-19 at 23:38 |
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