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Old 2005-02-22, 17:16   #23
cheesehead
 
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"Richard B. Woods"
Aug 2002
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Hey!! Lots of my editing on my 04:37 PM posting got lost!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Peter Nelson
Well, thinking about it I go down, the earth goes up. But my mass is the vastly smaller of the two bodies so the accelleration effect is greater on me toward the earth than vice versa?
Quote:
Originally Posted by cheeshead
No. The formula is: gravitational force = G * M1 * M2 / R^2, where G is a constant, M1 and M2 are the masses, and R is the distance between their centers of mass. It doesn't matter whether M1 > M2 or M2 > M1 -- force is the same either way.
That was my initial, mistaken text, before I re-read what Peter wrote! I thought I had edited it to something like the following before I hit "Submit Reply":

Yes, your acceleration is much greater than the earth's. The force (G * M1 * M2 / R^2, where G is a constant, M1 and M2 are the masses, and R is the distance between their centers of mass) is the same in either direction, but since acceleration = force / mass, your acceleration is much greater.
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Old 2005-02-22, 18:40   #24
leifbk
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by cheesehead
Pretty soon this is going to look like it needs to be a separate thread. :)
Yeah, maybe I'll go and talk to the Moderator about it. Warping my serious casemod thread with nonsense about gravity and inertia

On the other hand, I myself have been known to warp threads beyond repair on several occasions around the net So I think I'll let it go for this time, guys.

/Leif
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Old 2005-02-23, 18:03   #25
Peter Nelson
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by leifbk
Yeah, maybe I'll go and talk to the Moderator about it. Warping my serious casemod thread with nonsense about gravity and inertia

On the other hand, I myself have been known to warp threads beyond repair on several occasions around the net So I think I'll let it go for this time, guys.

/Leif
Very sorry that I warped your thread.

I seem to have created a monster :-)

Your glare was very stern. OK, feel free to put the gravity stuff in another thread or delete it (that was just to illustrate my problems with basic physics).

This thread started off asking for advice on a case. You then bought one.

(I will now try to bring this thread back on topic)

After that the topic moved to how to cool it well, including fan placement.

I suggested using a duct which would move the fan off the processor maybe.

The manufacturer claims this "reduces pressure".

My high school physics covered things I've never used like pulleys, but didn't cover practical and useful applications like keeping your cpu cool.

OK. So my question remains: If I have a 80mm fan and put it on the end of an 80mm duct, is the pressure different? I initially thought no, but am open to hear from anyone with more knowledge in the physics area.

After remembering some more I remember something about Boyles law for a gas which I think said in a given volume, (for a gas), the pressure is proportional to temperature (or something like that).

Therefore, if the air in physical proximity to the heatsink/cpu is very hot it would have different pressure to its pressure once it moves away to the other end of the duct (because it is now cooler).

I believe that the duct method can reduce turbulence, but it may have benefits because of the pressure difference too (if such exists). And would this be another benefit to 120mm fans (aside from reducing noise?)

I don't know much about this but would like to learn. So, if anyone has any facts (or hypothesis) about the physics of cpu cooling please tell. As well as conventional fans I don't think heatpipes or phase-change systems would be too irrelevant.

I liked your custom cardboard air management. However, personally I would prefer to surround the cpu and pump air in/out from the exterior as in Intel's BTX format. (Principle could be adopted by diy mod to a conventional ATX board).

Humble apologies, Peter
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