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Old 2018-11-13, 09:05   #1
wildrabbitt
 
Jul 2014

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Hi,

I'm trying to get a precise definition of 'prime' in sets of numbers beyond the set of natural numbers.

In my open university book it says :

Let \(R\) be a commutative ring. A non-zero, non-unit element \(p\) of \(R\) is prime if whenever \(p\mid ab\) then either \(p\mid a\) or \(p \mid b\).

When I see what this means for the set of integers I get to a conclusion I know must be wrong :

\(2 \mid 4\times8\) but 2 divides both 4 and 8. It can't be said that 2 divides either 4 or 8.

In other definitions of prime in rings and fields, there's no either in the wording. This makes more sense but is

Let \(R\) be a commutative ring. A non-zero, non-unit element \(p\) of \(R\) is prime if whenever \(p\mid ab\) then \(p\mid a\) or \(p \mid b\).

the right definition of prime?

Last fiddled with by wildrabbitt on 2018-11-13 at 09:07
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Old 2018-11-13, 09:29   #2
Nick
 
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Yes, you're absolutely right!
The point is that, in the integers for example, 4 divides 6x10 but 4 does not divide 6 or 10.
This is only possible because 4 is not a prime number.
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Old 2018-11-13, 13:29   #3
Dr Sardonicus
 
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Strike out "either." It should be the "inclusive or." If p is prime (a "prime element"), then p|a*b implies p|a or p|b (or both). The condition that p is not a unit, i.e. p does not divide 1, is to avoid trivialities. Of course, 0 is excluded from this definition since division by zero is undefined.

There is however, a special (and important) type of ring called an integral domain, in which a*b = 0 implies a = 0 or b = 0.

The ring of integers Z is an integral domain. The ring of 2x2 matrices with integer entries is not an integral domain. The ring of the integers mod 4 is not an integral domain, since 2*2 = 0.

Last fiddled with by Dr Sardonicus on 2018-11-13 at 14:06
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Old 2018-11-14, 00:33   #4
wildrabbitt
 
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Thanks to both posters. Very helpful.
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Old 2018-11-15, 03:44   #5
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My example of the ring of 2x2 matrices was inapt. Yes, it has plenty of "divisors of zero," but it's not an integral domain for a much more basic reason.

Its multiplications isn't commutative!


One can take commutative subrings, though. For example, the ring generated by (integer multiples of) the 2x2 identity I2 and M = [0,1;1,0] (which obviously commute) has

M^2 = I2, so that

(M - I2)*(M + I2) = 0.
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Old 2018-11-15, 15:19   #6
wildrabbitt
 
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I guess M = [0,1;1,0], means

0 1
1 0
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Old 2018-11-16, 00:29   #7
CRGreathouse
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by wildrabbitt View Post
I guess M = [0,1;1,0], means

0 1
1 0
Yes (in PARI/GP notation).
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Old 2018-12-24, 14:44   #8
Neutron3529
 
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I know a weird thing called "ideal", it might be the definition of 'prime' in sets of numbers beyond the set of natural numbers.


Since it is quite difficult to define a "prime" beyond the set of natural numbers.


For example, in \mathbb Z[\sqrt{-1}], the defination of "prime" will be what you describe, but in \mathbb Z[\sqrt{-5}], since 9=3*3=(2+\sqrt{-5})(2-\sqrt{-5}), the "prime" you define will be quite different than what you are thinking about.


Actually both 3|(2+\sqrt{-5}) and 3|(2-\sqrt{-5})could not be true, but 3|(2+\sqrt{-5})(2-\sqrt{-5})=9

Last fiddled with by Neutron3529 on 2018-12-24 at 14:45
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Old 2018-12-24, 14:54   #9
Nick
 
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In our Basic Number Theory course, we look at a more general definition of primes here:
https://www.mersenneforum.org/showthread.php?t=22479
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