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#166 | |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
145128 Posts |
Quote:
Your sum is not giving the probability of anything. It is giving the "expected" number of factors. Extending the sum up to 1/N, we can integrate 1/x from 71 to N and estimate the sum as ln (N/71). If N > 71e, the sum is >1. We can use the Poisson distribution to get the probabilities of no factors, precisely one factor and one or more factors from the expected number E: P(x) = Ex*e-E/x! Note that the sum from x=0 to infinity is 1. P(0) = e-E P(1) = E*e-E P(>0) = 1 - e-E Now when E<<1, P(1) and P(>0) --> E. This makes estimating things very easy. So easy that many fall into the trap you did. Note that 1 - e-E = .054 - .0015.... so the error in this case is neither very obvious nor serious. David Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2013-04-18 at 12:24 |
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#167 | |||
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"Bill Staffen"
Jan 2013
Pittsburgh, PA, USA
23×53 Posts |
In the case where I'm doing trial factoring, and I think in general everyone in the gpu to 72 group whose sub-forum we are posting in, numbers with factors are not factored.
In an objective sense, what I said (Expected LL work saved TFing 1 expo from 71 to 75 is 1/72+1/73+1/74+1/75 = .054) is certainly wrong. But when you consider our context as declared in my first paragraph above, these variables are not independant: 1 and only 1 can occur, and there can be no factors below bitdepth 72. Quote:
Quote:
Last fiddled with by Aramis Wyler on 2013-04-18 at 15:53 Reason: messed up a quote tag |
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#168 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2·3·13·83 Posts |
x and y are primes between 271 and 275.
Choose a random number N between 260,000,000 and 265,000,000. The probability that N is a multiple of x is 1/x. Suppose x is a factor of N. Does this affect the probability that N is a multiple of y being 1/y? If so how and why? David Edit: I'll answer this. The probability of N being a multiple of (xy) is 1/(xy) = (1/x) * (1/y). The probabitities are independent. Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2013-04-18 at 23:33 |
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#169 |
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"Bill Staffen"
Jan 2013
Pittsburgh, PA, USA
23·53 Posts |
In davieddie's world, where no factoring actually gets done, I suppose it's fair to treat them as independant even if for practical purposes they are mutually exclusive. Home field advantage.
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#170 | |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2×3×13×83 Posts |
Quote:
That guy really is the Devil incarnate! |
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#171 | ||
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If I May
"Chris Halsall"
Sep 2002
Barbados
2·5·7·139 Posts |
Quote:
Quote:
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#172 | |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2·3·13·83 Posts |
Quote:
He added four probabilities to obtain the expected number of factors. They ARE independent, and being <<1, approximate the expected number. Hence the confusion. To spell it out, expected factors between 271 and 275 is the integral of 1/(xlnx) = ln(75/71). Probability of no factors is e-ln(75/71) = 71/75 Can you explain why this applies to Mersenne numbers, as well as random ones? David Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2013-04-19 at 01:08 |
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#173 | |
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"Oliver"
Mar 2005
Germany
11×101 Posts |
Quote:
The chance for a factor between 2n-1 and 2n is 1/n, so the chance for a (roughly) n-bit factor is 1/n, but this is only a (good) estimate. The product of all prime factors of a number is equal to the number itself. For a number m there are log2(m) bitlevels, so summing all products of factor sizes multiplied by the chance for a factor of this size: 1*1/1 + 2*1/2 + 3*1/3 + ... + log2(m)*1/log2(m) = 1 + 1 + 1 + ... + 1 = log2(m) Oliver |
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#174 | |
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Just call me Henry
"David"
Sep 2007
Cambridge (GMT/BST)
10110111110002 Posts |
Quote:
Perhaps not surprisingly this simpilfies to 4/75. Expected LL work saved TFing 1 expo from 71 to 75 is 4/75 = .053333 Expected LL work saved TFing 2 expos from 71 to 74 is 2*(3/74) = 2*0.040540=0.081081 Turns out I missed a few posts. May as well post this anyway now I worked it out. |
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#175 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2×3×13×83 Posts |
Probability of no factors between 2n-1 and 2n = (n-1)/n is a special case of the probability of no factors between aA and aB = A/B
from which it follows immediately that the probability of no factors between 271 and 275 is 71/75. (Even more immediately than (71/72)*(72/73)*(73/74)*(74/75) = 71/75 )Now I gave a derivation of this formula which is so simple and plausible that you feel there must be something in it: Multiples of a prime p have p-1 integers between them. If we choose a random number N between 260,000,000 and 265,000,000, the probability that p is not a factor of N is (1 - 1/p). From the PNT or Mertens' theorem or otherwise, it is easy to show that the product of (1 - 1/p) for all primes between aA and aB is A/B. Now it is very tempting to just say QED, but two big issues rear their heads: 1) Independence: is the probability of pn being a factor still 1/pn even if we know none of p1 to pn-1 divide N? 2) The form of Mersenne factors CAN SOMEONE SORT THIS OUT? BOB? PLEASE??? David Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2013-04-20 at 14:43 |
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#176 | |
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"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26·131 Posts |
Quote:
2) well 2^65-2^60 = 2^60+2^61+2^63+2^64 = 15*2^60 (15*2^60)/(2*p) = (15*2^59)/p there are at most this many candidate factors. 1) though I don't know how many would get thrown from lower candidates being eliminated I know there are likely some depending on p (since 2*k*p+1 has at least one more bit than p, for p=60000000 this gives about 52 bits as (2p+1)^2, it might give some possibilities to eliminate.) |
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