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| View Poll Results: What do you think? | |||
| Profound thinker |
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1 | 11.11% |
| Someone who maybe addicted to caffeine |
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5 | 55.56% |
| A bit weird, but plausible |
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1 | 11.11% |
| Evil lurks within this manifold |
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3 | 33.33% |
| Multiple Choice Poll. Voters: 9. You may not vote on this poll | |||
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#1 |
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Mar 2005
58967,17,3,3 ---> bc.ca
23·32 Posts |
I've decided to share my Sunday musings with a few more people other than myself, so here I come !
Does Perfect = Imperfect ? A typical answer may be " of course not, silly ! ". A more reasoned response may be " no, but what are you trying to say ? ". And then, an hopeful response would be " maybe, if you consider a few limitations ". The best response is, of course, " yes, you are absolutely correct in your assertion, if it's an assertion ". For example, does a person who stutters = a person who does not stutter. Or to be more clear, does a stuttering person stutter ? Of course, a stuttering person does not stutter ! I know this to be true, because if you ignore all the malformed words or attempts at word formation from a stuttering person, that person speaks perfectly, or just as well as I do, because I do not stutter. So, by induction, I think, PERFECT = IMPERFECT , if you ignore that which may lead you to think that PERFECT <> IMPERFECT ! ( more than or less than, but not equal ). And now another " prime " example of this kind of thinking is this: ZERO = INFINITY Be careful here, there is a trapdoor ! |
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#2 |
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Dec 2010
Monticello
5×359 Posts |
Zero is isomorphic to infinity with respect to division and multiplication. Equal? no...infiinity is not an identity operator for addition or subtraction.
And certainly noone here would confuse an imperfect number with a perfect number...especially an ODD perfect number.
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#3 | |
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Nov 2003
22×5×373 Posts |
Quote:
Go back to school. Study very hard. When your IQ reaches 50, SELL. You will make a profit. |
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#4 |
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Nov 2003
11101001001002 Posts |
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#5 |
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I quite division it
"Chris"
Feb 2005
England
31×67 Posts |
@ 1min 16sec
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#6 |
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Dec 2010
Monticello
5·359 Posts |
Let me re-phrase: (I've been working problems out of Leveque's number theory book, but didn't quite get my proper mathematical hat on....)
Under the map R*-->1/R*, where R* is the real numbers with infinity added, the operations of multiplication and division are preserved, with zero mapped to infinity and vice-versa. This map is 1 to 1 and onto. and therefore is an isomorphism. What did I miss? Surely isomorphisms aren't limited to rings, though they may be more useful there... |
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#7 | |
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Jun 2003
117378 Posts |
Quote:
![]() EDIT:- btw, there is a poll in there, if anyone cares. Last fiddled with by axn on 2011-10-24 at 07:15 Reason: POLL |
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#8 |
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Undefined
"The unspeakable one"
Jun 2006
My evil lair
22·32·173 Posts |
Yes it does ... but only if you live in Wonderland with Alice. And you can even extend your argument to "anyOneThing = anyOtherThing", you just have to make sure you ignore all the things where anyOneThing != anyOtherThing and, eureka, you will find that anyOneThing = anyOtherThing.
![]() For the poll - I was looking for the fifth option: Wish I hadn't clicked on this topic. Last fiddled with by retina on 2011-10-24 at 07:51 |
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#9 |
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Dec 2010
Monticello
5·359 Posts |
You need to watch Flatlander's video up there....really...
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#10 | |
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Nov 2003
1D2416 Posts |
Quote:
the REALS. |
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#11 |
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Undefined
"The unspeakable one"
Jun 2006
My evil lair
11000010101002 Posts |
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