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#1 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2×3×13×83 Posts |
Assume that the probability of 2^k-1 being prime is
2.57/k for all integers k>k0. Let P(k) be the probability of there being no more Mersenne primes before k. Given P(k0), derive an expression for P(k) for k>k0. David Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2008-06-17 at 01:38 |
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#2 | ||
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"Richard B. Woods"
Aug 2002
Wisconsin USA
22×3×641 Posts |
Quote:
Quote:
Last fiddled with by cheesehead on 2008-06-17 at 04:46 |
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#3 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2·3·13·83 Posts |
It is probably easiest to think of the concrete example:
Say k0 is 45M, so no testing has been done above it and my probability assumption holds. P(45M) is < 1 because not all exponents below 45M have been tested. "No more primes" means "no more than the 44 found to date". Big hint: P(j+1)=P(j)(1-2.57/j). Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2008-06-17 at 09:14 |
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#4 | |
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"Robert Gerbicz"
Oct 2005
Hungary
27168 Posts |
Quote:
Visit: http://primes.utm.edu/notes/faq/NextMersenne.html for a probably valid conjecture. Last fiddled with by R. Gerbicz on 2008-06-17 at 11:46 |
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#5 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2×3×13×83 Posts |
It is a model which reflects the density of Mersenne primes,
just as 1/ln(n) gives the probability of n being prime. |
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#6 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
145128 Posts |
It helps (me at least) to regard the exponent j as a continuous real variable.
The probability density is 2.57/j , meaning that the probability of an exponent between j and (j+dj) yielding a Mersenne prime is 2.57dj/j for small enough dj. It's no more "outrageous" than applying the wave equation to a solid even though we know it is made of atoms. Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2008-06-17 at 17:58 |
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#7 | |
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Bamboozled!
"πΊππ·π·π"
May 2003
Down not across
1078510 Posts |
Quote:
Atoms are well described by a sum of wave functions for their constituent particles (including virtual particles in the full QED treatment); an ensemble of atoms is well described by a sum of wave functions. What's outrageous about it? Paul |
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#8 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2·3·13·83 Posts |
I was referring to the classical wave equation, and there is
nothing outrageous about it (to a physicist) as long as the wavelength >> separation of atoms. In this case the "half life" of the "decay curve" I seek is of the order of k0 (i.e. millions >>1) Enough pedantry: someone integrate P(j+dj)= P(j)*(1 - 2.57dj/j) between j=k0 and j=k. Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2008-06-17 at 19:09 |
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#9 | |
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Bamboozled!
"πΊππ·π·π"
May 2003
Down not across
3·5·719 Posts |
Quote:
Paul |
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#10 | |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
194A16 Posts |
Quote:
dP/P=-2.57dj/j integrating from j=k0 to k: ln(P(k)/P(k0)) = -2.57ln(k/k0) P(k)/P(k0) = (k0/k)^2.57 Note that this formula can also be arrived at by observing that the expected number of Mersenne primes between exponents k0 and k is 2.57ln(k/k0) and using the Poisson distribution to give Probability of no primes = 1/e^(expected number of primes). Surely my decay curve illuminates discussion of "where is M45" in the same way that "exponential decay" helps predict when an unstable nucleus will decay? More anon, David Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2008-06-18 at 09:49 |
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#11 | |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
194A16 Posts |
Quote:
doing a DPhil in solid state physics under the supervision of Rudolf Peierls. (I thought I'd discover the theory of Everything instead) Re quantum mechanics, I found that the "explanation" of atomic structure made me (almost) glad I did Chemistry instead of double Maths at school. David |
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