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#1 |
Dec 2010
2·37 Posts |
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Could anybody please help me understand why any factor of Mp must be of the form 2*k*p+1?
I understand that any factor q divides 2^(q-1)-1, due to Fermat's little theorem, and I understand that (apparently) p divides q-1, which easily leads to the conclusion. I don't understand how FLT leads to p dividing q-1. Is anybody out there knowledgeable and kind enough to help me understand this piece of the Mersenne puzzle? |
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#2 |
"Serge"
Mar 2008
Phi(4,2^7658614+1)/2
100111010001012 Posts |
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There's this page at UTM. Maybe someone will explain that in easier terms?
___________________________________________ Interestingly (similarly),
Last fiddled with by Batalov on 2014-03-09 at 00:43 Reason: GQ and EQ's |
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#3 | |
Dec 2010
4A16 Posts |
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#5 | |
"Bob Silverman"
Nov 2003
North of Boston
22·1,877 Posts |
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by itself. Instead, look up Lagrange's Theorem. Definition: Within a group G, the order of an element a is the smallest integer x, such that a^x = e, where e is the group identity. |
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#6 |
May 2013
East. Always East.
11·157 Posts |
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2kp+1 or +/- 1 (mod 8). The second one is important. 2^6-1 = 63 = 7*9.
Now whether or not this proof is good for composite exponents is unknown to me. Last fiddled with by TheMawn on 2014-03-09 at 04:34 |
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#7 |
Dec 2010
2·37 Posts |
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Now I get it. Thank you. The order is the smallest exponent such that the congruency is one. 2^p is congruent to one, and p is prime, so p is the order. It's the smallest possible exponent. Therefore, q-1 is divisible by p, and the rest is simple algebra.
Beautiful. TheMawn, if the exponent is composite, then 2^c is congruent to one, but c may not be the order as c is not prime. If d is a factor of c, 2^d could be congruent to one, and d could be the order. While d would divide q-1, c might not. So for composite exponents, I suppose one of the factors of the composite would likely replace the "p" value in "2kp+1". As for the +/- 1 (mod 8) rule, I don't understand quadratic residues yet. I'll get there though! Last fiddled with by siegert81 on 2014-03-09 at 12:59 |
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#8 | ||
"Bob Silverman"
Nov 2003
North of Boston
22×1,877 Posts |
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Quote:
Exercize for the student: determine what he said that was wrong. |
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#9 |
Dec 2010
2·37 Posts |
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Actually, I *DO* get it, but I used the letter p instead of q, on accident.
If p is a prime factor of Mq, then 2^q is congruent to 1 (mod p). Any power of 2 that is congruent to 1 (mod p) must be a multiple of the order of 2 (mod p). Since q is prime, q is the order of 2 (mod p). Due to FLT, 2^(p-1) is congruent to 1 (mod p). As a result, p-1 is divisible by q, and p=2kq+1. Last fiddled with by siegert81 on 2014-03-09 at 16:08 |
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#10 |
"Bob Silverman"
Nov 2003
North of Boston
22×1,877 Posts |
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#11 | |
Aug 2010
Kansas
547 Posts |
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