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#1 |
Dec 2008
34116 Posts |
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I was looking through some tables of Laplace Transforms on f(t) the other day, and I noticed that in all cases, as
I suspect that the answer is "no", but if anyone has some attempt at a proof I would appreciate it (my idea would be to use Post's inversion formula and utilizing the Grunwald-Letnikov differintegral for evaluating |
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#2 | |
Dec 2008
72×17 Posts |
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Well, I managed to finally prove it. |
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