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#1 |
Oct 2015
1 Posts |
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...(2^(2^(2^n-1)-1)-1)...
I mean... isn't that at least a proof that there's an infinate amout of them? Try it with how meny primes you like... and with how meny 2^....-1 you like... it always works |
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#2 | |
Romulan Interpreter
"name field"
Jun 2011
Thailand
996210 Posts |
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#3 | ||
Nov 2003
22×5×373 Posts |
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every number in the sequence is prime. You have a strange notion about what constitutes a proof. Quote:
I suggest that you think about what you wrote. For example, please prove to us that 2^(2^127-1) - 1 is prime. Last fiddled with by R.D. Silverman on 2015-10-13 at 13:28 |
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#4 |
Undefined
"The unspeakable one"
Jun 2006
My evil lair
144658 Posts |
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#5 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26·131 Posts |
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2) by that same logic m=2^n-1 must be prime for 2^m-1= 2^(2^n-1)-1 to have a chance at being prime. 3) as LaurV pointed out not all n that are prime will allow 2^n-1 to be prime. |
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#6 | |
Nov 2003
22×5×373 Posts |
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However, I'd still like an answer to my question as to why the OP thinks that presenting a sequence of numbers is in any way a "proof". There were no mathematical statements asserting that some (set of) condition(s) is true, nor were there any logical statements. It was just a list of numbers. How can this be a proof? |
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#7 |
Aug 2002
Buenos Aires, Argentina
1,447 Posts |
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#8 | |
Nov 2003
22×5×373 Posts |
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It is hard to correct someone's misconceptions without knowing how and why they believe what they believe. A simple statement that what was posted is not a proof says very little./// We need to know why the OP thought that simply presenting a sequence of numbers might be a proof. Last fiddled with by R.D. Silverman on 2015-10-13 at 14:14 Reason: typo |
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#9 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26·131 Posts |
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#10 |
Nov 2003
22×5×373 Posts |
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Gibberish from someone who hasn't yet passed first year algebra.
Last fiddled with by R.D. Silverman on 2015-10-13 at 14:26 |
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#11 |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
838410 Posts |
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