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#1 |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26·131 Posts |
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could it ever be true that going down a steeper slope will get you going slower than a shallow slope for the same vertical distance. if you agree it's true can someone send it to mythbusters to test ? I don't know quite how to. though I might try to find adam savages email.
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#2 |
Account Deleted
"Tim Sorbera"
Aug 2006
San Antonio, TX USA
17×251 Posts |
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I don't think it's possible. If you want to suggest it, you can by posting on this forum.
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#3 | |
Bamboozled!
"πΊππ·π·π"
May 2003
Down not across
3·3,529 Posts |
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Paul |
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#4 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
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#5 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
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#6 |
"William"
May 2003
New Haven
236110 Posts |
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Assuming you don't want to rig the results using methods such as those suggested by Xilman above, you are converting gravitational energy into kinetic energy. If there aren't any energy leaks (friction etc), then the speed must be the same.
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#7 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
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9.808 angle 89 using sine this is what I come up for for 9.80665 m drop on the opposite ( admittedly Last fiddled with by science_man_88 on 2011-05-04 at 18:43 |
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#8 |
May 2003
154710 Posts |
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It also depends on what you mean by slope.
For example, your track could consist of two metal wires. The moving object could be two cones glued together. Then it can be the case that you can have your cones move "up" the track. |
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#9 |
Dec 2010
Monticello
70316 Posts |
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Guys:
There's also an assumption of linearity here...for example, if the thing going down the slope is a rock, and at the end of the slope there's a water surface, then, if the angle is too steep, the rock falls into the water. If it is shallower, then the rock will skip, and bounce back into the air with little loss of speed. Similarly, at work we have a self-exciting brake circuit, that, basically, doesn't "catch" until a certain speed is reached. Get above that speed, you end up much slower than if you stayed just below it. |
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#10 | |
Nov 2003
22×5×373 Posts |
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If the surface is frictionless and the object falls through height 'h', then its total velocity will be 'v' as given by mgh = 1/2 mv^2 where m is the mass and g the force of gravity. But part of that velocity will be vertical and part of it will be horizontal. Total velocity will be independent of slope, but VERTICAL velocity will not be. The question was about vertical velocity. Thank you for playing. If the slope has angle theta (with the ground), I suggest you resolve the velocity into its horizontal and vertical components. (I assume you know what a dot product is??? [actually, dot products can be avoided here]. You will find that as theta --> 0 (the slope becomes flat), the VERTICAL velocity also goes to 0...... (Think about sin(x)). I assume of course, a frictionless slope. If it is not, then one must also compute the frictional force (ratio of vertical and horizontal force against the surface of contact). This will have the effect of opposing 'g', the force of gravity. And the frictional force will depend on the slope. This is all simple high school physics. |
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#11 | |
"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
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