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#1 |
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Nov 2004
24 Posts |
Let P(n) denote the n-th prime number. Then, does anybody have an idea why P(n+1)<(sqrt(P(n))+1)^2 is true? This would be a lower bound than the Tchebycheff result that there is always a prime between n and 2n. Regards.
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#2 | |
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Nov 2003
22·5·373 Posts |
Quote:
true. The best that has been achieved, when last I looked was that there is always a prime between x and x + x^(11/20 + epsilon), for epsilon depending on x as x -->oo. The fraction 11/20 may have been improved. Note that even R.H does not yield the result you want. R.H. would imply there is always a prime between x and x + sqrt(x)log x for sufficiently large x. You want one between x and 2sqrt(x)+1. |
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#3 | |
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Feb 2005
22·32·7 Posts |
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#4 |
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Jun 2003
2×7×113 Posts |
http://www.primepuzzles.net/conjectures/conj_008.htm
Is my favorite conjecture related to distribution of primes. |
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