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#1 |
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Jun 2003
30568 Posts |
I am just wondering in the n-1 primality test must p-1 be completely factorizable.
Can p be (a^a-1)/(a-1) where a is prime then p-1 = (a^a-a)/(a-1) clearly a^(a-1)-1 can be split into a^(a-1)/2+1 and a^(a-1)/2-1 Can this factorization be used to prove these numbers prime or not? Citrix |
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#2 | |
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"William"
May 2003
New Haven
2×7×132 Posts |
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#3 | |
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Nov 2003
22·5·373 Posts |
Quote:
p-1, p+1, p^2+1, p^2+p+1, p^2-p+1, such that the product exceeds n^1/3, then you can do a full primality proof with "old fashioned" methods. The Cyclotomy (aka Cohen-Lenstra-Bosma, etc.) Method even improves upon this. It can use results from *many* cyclotomic rings simultaneously... |
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#4 | |
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Bamboozled!
"๐บ๐๐ท๐ท๐ญ"
May 2003
Down not across
101010000111002 Posts |
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I've implemented the simple form of Cohen-Lenstra version and made a start on Bosma's improved version but gave up after a while. Paul |
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