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#1 |
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Jul 2014
3×149 Posts |
Hi,
is it known that for a prime p, 2^p - 1 cannot have a factor of 2p+1 if (p-1)/2 is even? |
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#2 | |
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Einyen
Dec 2003
Denmark
C5716 Posts |
Yes, it is known:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sophie_Germain_prime Quote:
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#3 |
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Jul 2014
3·149 Posts |
thanks very much. It'll take me a while to understand your text but don't hold your breath.
(not meaning to be rude). Last fiddled with by wildrabbitt on 2019-04-30 at 18:55 |
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#4 |
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Sep 2003
5×11×47 Posts |
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#5 | |
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∂2ω=0
Sep 2002
República de California
103×113 Posts |
Quote:
Last fiddled with by ewmayer on 2019-04-30 at 22:10 |
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#6 | |
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Einyen
Dec 2003
Denmark
35·13 Posts |
Quote:
Yes I linked to the article saying 2p+1 is only a factor when p=3 (mod 4) and then I showed that his assumption "(p-1)/2 is even" is the same as p=1 (mod 4), so therefore he was correct but it was already known. |
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#7 | |
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Jul 2014
3·149 Posts |
Quote:
Last fiddled with by wildrabbitt on 2019-05-01 at 17:22 |
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