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Old 2019-02-03, 21:06   #1
wildrabbitt
 
Jul 2014

3·149 Posts
Default a question about an integral

I was wondering what happens when the method of partial fractions is used for indefinite integrals I've always done for a real variable.

The integrand was

\frac{1}{1+x^2}

the solution I got was

\frac{i}{2}\frac{ln(1 + ix)}{ln(1 - ix)} + c

If there was nothing wrong with the method I used then the latter expression
is arctan(x) + c.

Was there anything wrong with my method?

Should have written

\frac{i}{2}ln{\frac{(1 + ix)}{(1 - ix)} + c

Last fiddled with by wildrabbitt on 2019-02-03 at 21:57
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Old 2019-02-04, 20:56   #2
Dr Sardonicus
 
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Feb 2017
Nowhere

4,643 Posts
Default

Suggest you use the formula

e^{i\theta}\;=\;\cos{(\theta)}\;+\;i\sin{(\theta)}
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