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Old 2018-06-10, 19:36   #1
bhelmes
 
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Default t² | p-1

A peaceful and pleasant evening for all,

let p be element of N, t a divisor of p-1
if t² | p-1
is it possible that there exist n^t=1 mod p (n element N)
and it exists no m^(t²) =1 mod p (m element N) at the same time.

Or in other words:
Could there be a cycle subgroup with t elements and at the same time
a non cycle subgroup with t² elements if t² | p-1

If you know an example or a proof for it,
i would be interesting to know it.

Greetings from the primes
Bernhard
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Old 2018-06-10, 20:30   #2
R. Gerbicz
 
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"Robert Gerbicz"
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bhelmes View Post
is it possible that there exist n^t=1 mod p (n element N)
and it exists no m^(t²) =1 mod p (m element N) at the same time.
What do you think about n=1 and m=1 ?
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Old 2018-06-10, 23:32   #3
science_man_88
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bhelmes View Post
let p be element of N, t a divisor of p-1
if t² | p-1
is it possible that there exist n^t=1 mod p (n element N)
and it exists no m^(t²) =1 mod p (m element N) at the same time.
So not 1 t root of n. Not sure myself at least for non trivial cases.
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Old 2018-06-11, 14:10   #4
Dr Sardonicus
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bhelmes View Post
A peaceful and pleasant evening for all,

let p be element of N, t a divisor of p-1
if t² | p-1
is it possible that there exist n^t=1 mod p (n element N)
and it exists no m^(t²) =1 mod p (m element N) at the same time.

Or in other words:
Could there be a cycle subgroup with t elements and at the same time
a non cycle subgroup with t² elements if t² | p-1

[snip]
If n^t == 1 (mod p) then n^(t^2) = (n^t)^t == 1 (mod p) as well, so the answer to your question as first stated is "no."

If p is prime, the answer to your question is "no." The multiplicative group is cyclic of order p - 1. If d is any divisor of p - 1, there is at least one element of multiplicative order d.

If you mean, as it appears from your restatement, that "t^2 divides p - 1, there is an element of multiplicative order t, but no element of multiplicative order t^2," then the answer can be "yes," but of course p must be composite.

Example: p = 9, t = 2, n = 8. 8^2 == 1 (mod 9), 2^2 divides 9 - 1 = 8, but there is no element of multiplicative order 4 (mod 9). The multiplicative group (mod 9) is cyclic of order 6.

This example may be generalized. If l is a prime, q is a prime divisor of l - 1, but q^2 is not a divisor of l - 1, then q^2 is a divisor of l^q - 1. However, the multiplicative group (mod l^q) is cyclic of order l^(q-1)*(l - 1) which is not divisible by q^2. Thus, taking p = l^q, we have that q^2 divides p - 1, there is at least one element of multiplicative order q (mod p), but no element of multiplicative order q^2.
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Old 2018-06-12, 02:57   #5
bhelmes
 
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Dear Dr Sardonicus,

thanks for the clear answer.

It was a question which appears to me concerning https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pockli...primality_test

Last fiddled with by bhelmes on 2018-06-12 at 03:08
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