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#1 |
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"Rashid Naimi"
Oct 2015
Remote to Here/There
2,063 Posts |
If a Mersenne number is not divisible by any Mersenne primes less than itself (as few as they are), then its exponent is a prime number.
Last fiddled with by a1call on 2017-02-04 at 18:52 |
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#2 |
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"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
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#3 | |
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Aug 2006
3·1,993 Posts |
Quote:
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#4 |
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"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
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#5 |
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"Rashid Naimi"
Oct 2015
Remote to Here/There
40178 Posts |
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#6 | |
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"Rashid Naimi"
Oct 2015
Remote to Here/There
2,063 Posts |
Quote:
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#7 |
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"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26·131 Posts |
not really you just don't think of 1 as a mersenne number but it is( dependent on which definition you use).
Last fiddled with by science_man_88 on 2017-02-05 at 00:15 |
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#8 | |
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"Rashid Naimi"
Oct 2015
Remote to Here/There
2,063 Posts |
Quote:
1 does not satisfy neither (or is it either? ) condition. Last fiddled with by a1call on 2017-02-05 at 00:24 |
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#9 |
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"Forget I exist"
Jul 2009
Dumbassville
26×131 Posts |
okay I'll give you that though there was a time when 1 was considered prime. also your statement about the exponent is an equivalent to division on the natural numbers as if the exponents divide so will the mersenne numbers.
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#10 |
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"Rashid Naimi"
Oct 2015
Remote to Here/There
2,063 Posts |
Yes-but and No, respectively. Yes-but we happen to be living in 21st century and No, that does not state that any Mersenne number exponents are primes( although it does entail that).
Last fiddled with by a1call on 2017-02-05 at 00:55 |
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#11 | |
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"Serge"
Mar 2008
Phi(4,2^7658614+1)/2
2·47·101 Posts |
Quote:
What you just wrote is equivalent to: "If a number is not divisible by any prime less than itself, then it is a prime number". Where the first clause is equivalent to the definition of a prime number. So what you wrote is: "If a number is prime, then it is a prime number". That's profound! |
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