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#1 |
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Mar 2004
72×11 Posts |
I'm wondering if it can be shown, or even if it's known yet, whether there exist primes p,q such that (p^m)-(q^n)<=A for an arbitrary positive integer A.
I am wondering because, in the special case where p and q are 2 and 3 (or vice versa) it might be easy to prove primality or compositeness of integers N in the range (q^n)<N<(p^m) through arguments about what forms the factors of N must have. |
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#2 | |
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Mar 2004
29 Posts |
Quote:
Catalan's theorem states that there is only one solution (3²-2³) for this equation. It has been prooven a few years ago after about 150 years of uncertainty :o) So I guess the answer to your question is not trivial. Jürgen |
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#3 |
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Feb 2003
408 Posts |
try this page: http://www.primepuzzles.net/conjectures/conj_031.htm
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