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#1 |
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Dec 2008
you know...around...
12368 Posts |
I'm still not quite satisfied with what I find when looking for this one...
Once upon a time, I think it was about two years ago, I tried to find a way to get the value of x- x- To simplify the summation term, I split log(y+1)-log(y) into x- Yet I don't exactly know how to proceed with the summation term. Any comments/suggestions? Precisely, the question is "What accuracy is feasible without having to compute every single value of the sum?" (And ultimately "When will |
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#2 | |
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Nov 2003
11101001001002 Posts |
Quote:
summation)??? |
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#3 |
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Dec 2008
you know...around...
2×5×67 Posts |
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#4 | |
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Dec 2008
you know...around...
29E16 Posts |
Quote:
Now I wondered if there's a way to get any kind of error bound. |
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#5 |
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Dec 2008
you know...around...
12368 Posts |
May I ask one concise question:
is there a fuction f(x) such that Darn it, that can't be quite right. May I ask another question: does someone at least understand this equation? (Silverman: No. This is gibberish. You compare infinity to some function whose n isn't defined. me: I know, I just have extreme difficulty to get things that I want to say into precise mathematical depictions.) Last fiddled with by mart_r on 2011-03-18 at 17:04 |
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#6 | |
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(loop (#_fork))
Feb 2006
Cambridge, England
3×2,141 Posts |
Quote:
And should the right-hand integral also be from 2 to infinity? Plugging things into Wolfram Alpha, so you're asking about the asymptotic behaviour of the exponential-integral function |
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#7 |
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Dec 2008
you know...around...
2×5×67 Posts |
What I meant is that for a given value of x the equation approaches some constant if n goes to infinity.
To give some numerical examples: for x=0, this would be f(0)=1, since the prime counting functions Li(x) and x/(log(x)-1) both are asymptotic to the number of primes up to x. If I'm not mistaken, f(1/2) should be somewhere near 2.24. Last fiddled with by mart_r on 2011-03-18 at 18:01 |
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#8 |
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Aug 2006
3·1,993 Posts |
I still can't quite understand what function you're getting at.
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#9 | |
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Dec 2008
you know...around...
2×5×67 Posts |
Quote:
Well... okay, I'll try it again tomorrow. I see I need to get rid of comparing two infinities. ![]() Again, I highly recommend the well-known example: [Quote Jake Long] Aw maan! [\Quote] Last fiddled with by mart_r on 2011-03-18 at 22:40 |
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#10 |
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(loop (#_fork))
Feb 2006
Cambridge, England
3·2,141 Posts |
So you want
f(n) = I'm not sure that this is not equal to 1 for all n. Last fiddled with by fivemack on 2011-03-19 at 18:52 |
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#11 |
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Dec 2008
you know...around...
2·5·67 Posts |
Well, firstly I notice that one of these integrals wasn't necessary at all:
That looks more like it. And now I see that I may have made things too complicated to begin with. f(x) is, judging by the values I get with MathCad, nothing more than 1/(x+1). Last fiddled with by mart_r on 2011-03-19 at 20:19 |
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