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#485 | |
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Nov 2003
22×5×373 Posts |
Quote:
Let the units be x1, x2, ....xk where k = phi(m). Consider the subset of these units such that each element has an inverse that is different from itself. PAIR (all of) THESE. Multiply them together. Their product is trivially equal to 1. i.e. each unit times its inverse equals 1 by definition, so the product of all the pairs must be 1. [BTW, this result, when m is prime gives Wilson's Theorem; look it up] Now consider the elements whose inverse is not different from themselves. Thus, a = a^-1 mod m. What can you say about the product of any two of these elements? |
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#486 |
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Nov 2003
164448 Posts |
Ah. Total brain damage on my part. I had some examples in a file
and I cut/pasted together some incorrect parts of the file. Very careless. Try: Units of Z/10Z are 1,3,7,9. 3*7 = 1 mod 10, so what is left is 1*9 = 9 mod 10. |
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#487 | |
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Jan 2010
37910 Posts |
Quote:
The product of 1 and -1 is -1. |
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#488 |
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Aug 2005
Seattle, WA
2·877 Posts |
Sure, you gave that latter example in post #464 too. My point was that this is not total brain damage. It's just a mistake. All of us make them sometimes, whether students or advanced practitioners. We shouldn't be berated so mercilessly when it happens.
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#489 |
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Nov 2003
22·5·373 Posts |
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#490 | |
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Nov 2003
22×5×373 Posts |
Quote:
to check the data that I pasted into my message. This is such an oversight that "brain damage" is appropriate. |
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#491 |
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Dec 2008
83310 Posts |
Unless you are actually brain damaged, then I disagree that brain damage is appropriate (not to mention inaccurate).
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#492 | |
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Jan 2010
379 Posts |
Quote:
(1) Sutisfiy: Now consider the elements whose inverse is not different from themselves. Thus, a = a^-1 mod m. *You asked what is the product of these numbers. (2)As I know, a unity is i=(-1)^(0.5) or 1 or -1. When I said "real unity" I meant 1 or -1. So, back to your question: Numbers that agree the following (1) are the numbers: 1,-1. Thier product is -1. |
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#493 | ||
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Nov 2003
22·5·373 Posts |
Quote:
for you. And Shanks' book discusses them. A unit is an element of a ring that has a multiplicative inverse. Quote:
No. We are NOT discussing 'unity' (or whatever you think 'unity' might be). I have said this multiple times: The units of the integers taken mod m, where m is an integer greater than 1 are those integers that have a multiplicative inverse mod m. The question is then: What is the product of all of the units taken mod m??? Even you gave examples showing that you know what units are. So why are you confused now? The product of two units does not have to be 1 or -1. Consider the integers mod 10. The units are 1,3,7,9. Note that 3*9 is 7 mod 10. This clearly isn't 1 or -1. On the other hand, 3 and 7 are inverses. |
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#494 | |
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Jan 2010
17B16 Posts |
Quote:
Unity- i, 1, -1. Unit of a ring- For any given natural number n, g is a unit of n if and only if g is natural <n, (n,g)=1. I'm deffinietly not confused (maybe just because of not understanding what question am I needed to answer now), Your last question was: What is the product of natural numbers a which satisfy: a=a^(-1)(mod m). We easily mention that these numbers are equal to thier inverse. These may be 1,-1 (I called these "real unities" becuase these are real and unities, I'm sorry for calling these like that, becuase of wasting too much time for it). Can you please give me a hint how to explain why is d(m) modulo m is allways 1 or -1? I want again to show my work: If "a" which is d(m) modulo m (the residue) isn't 1 or -1, it may be devide d(m) or m. If it devide any of them, it must be deviding the other one too, which is out of the definition of d(m). My confusion come by not understanding the definition of inverse here: "On the other hand, 3 and 7 are inverses. " Inverses of what? Do you mean, a number b^(-1) for any real b? Is there another meaning here by saying inverse? Last fiddled with by blob100 on 2010-06-03 at 17:18 |
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#495 | |||
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Nov 2003
1D2416 Posts |
Quote:
Stop inventing terminology. And your statement: "(I called these "real unities" becuase these are real and unities, ) is a misuse of existing terminolgy. 1 and -1 are units of Z. In fact, they are the only units. Stop inserting extraneous words into (i.e. the word 'real', as in 'real unities') your discussion because they make it appear that you are just confused. Elements of a ring that are equal to their own inverse do not have to be 1 or -1. Why do you think that they are? Consider m = (say) 24. 5 is its own inverse, yet 5 certainly is not 1 or -1. Quote:
INVERSES. Quote:
Stop adding words!!!!! (as in 'real' b). Do not use the word real in a mathematical context unless you are in fact discussing the REAL NUMBERS. We are discussing the units of the integers taken mod m. These are the ONLY numbers under discussion. Why do you keep babbling about "real" numbers? In R, every number except 0 is a unit. I made it clear at the very beginning of this discussion what an inverse is. It is a MULTIPLICATIVE INVERSE. How can this possibly be unclear? The definition of a multiplicative inverse is basic, pre-algebra arithmetic. |
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