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#1 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2·3·13·83 Posts |
How many ways can you arrange 60 coloured tiles in a row,
15 different colours, 4 of each colour. (Not sure whether this is very hard, but would like to know the answer). Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2007-07-07 at 19:59 |
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#2 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
11001010010102 Posts |
60!/(4!)^15
= 1.648*10^61 I've temporarily forgotten the magic "hide answer" instruction. Not to worry. D. Last fiddled with by davieddy on 2007-07-07 at 20:32 Reason: But no more:) |
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#3 |
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Bronze Medalist
Jan 2004
Mumbai,India
22×33×19 Posts |
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#4 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2·3·13·83 Posts |
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#5 | |
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Bronze Medalist
Jan 2004
Mumbai,India
22·33·19 Posts |
Quote:
![]() Off hand my intuition tells me your answer is erroneous, the very fact you are using an exponent (15) its not a common answer for Permutations or combinations. Exponents normally come into play with distributions unless I have read your problem wrong. The common meaning would be 60 tiles arranged in 15 rows of 4 different colours each. But you are calling it one 'row' of 60 spaces. That would more likely be a string of 60 spaces in one line However if your answer is right I would certainly want to know how you get such a large figure? Kindly clarify, Mally
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#6 |
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Jan 2005
Transdniestr
503 Posts |
It's really a basic permutation problem.
Consider a row of 4 balls with two of each color: a and b. There are 4!/(2!)^2 = 6 permutations. a a b b a b b a b b a a a b a b b a b a b a a b The original question just involves larger values |
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#7 | |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2·3·13·83 Posts |
Quote:
If we take 4 of the colours and make them the same (indistinguishable), then the 4! ways of rearranging these tiles now count as one arrangement, reducing the number of distinct arrangements to 60!/4!. Do this for all 15 sets of 4 colours and we get 60!/4!^15. It is the same principle as in deriving nCr = n!/(r!(n-r)!) David |
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#8 |
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Feb 2007
24·33 Posts |
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#9 |
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Feb 2007
6608 Posts |
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#10 |
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"William"
May 2003
New Haven
93E16 Posts |
The explanation I find most intuitive is to start by placing the four tiles of the first color. There are "60 choose 4" ways to do this, well known to be 60!/(56!*4!).
Next place the second color. For every combination of the first color there are "56 choose 4" choices. Then "52 choose 4" then "48 choose 4" etc. The numerator of each cancels the large factorial in the denominator of the previous, resulting in the simple expression.
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#11 |
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"Lucan"
Dec 2006
England
2·3·13·83 Posts |
As may be deduced from the time I posted my
calculated answer, I had "intuited" the formula almost before I had finished editing the question. David |
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