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#1 |
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Oct 2004
Austria
1001101100102 Posts |
What is the reason why max. B1 for p+1 = 4294967295 ?
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#2 |
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Bamboozled!
"๐บ๐๐ท๐ท๐ญ"
May 2003
Down not across
270268 Posts |
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#3 |
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Oct 2004
Austria
2·17·73 Posts |
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#4 |
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"Nancy"
Aug 2002
Alexandria
2,467 Posts |
The B1 value is stored in a variable of type double, so that would allow for values bigger than 2^32-1. However, the PRAC algorithm we use in P+1 and ECM uses integers.
Alex |
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#5 | |
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Oct 2004
Austria
2×17×73 Posts |
Quote:
Currently running P+1 on M1061 with B1 = M32, B2 = 1e14 (I guess it is also possible with p+1 to run stage 2 in steps of B2 = 1e13, B2=1e13-2e13, B2=2e13-3e13 etc. - am I right?) |
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#6 |
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"Nancy"
Aug 2002
Alexandria
2,467 Posts |
Yes, it's possible. I'd recommend against running P-1/P+1/ECM on M1061, though. On one hand, it is almost certainly wasted effort, on the other hand, if it isn't, someone somewhere might scream like a banshee.
Alex |
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#7 |
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Oct 2004
Austria
2×17×73 Posts |
OK. What is the next Mersenne number which no known factor and how much ECM/P-1/P+1 has been done on it?
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#8 |
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P90 years forever!
Aug 2002
Yeehaw, FL
17×487 Posts |
See http://mersenne.org/ecm1.htm for ECM info on small Mersennes. I think they've been P-1'ed to 4 billion.
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#9 | |
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Oct 2004
Austria
2×17×73 Posts |
Quote:
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#10 |
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P90 years forever!
Aug 2002
Yeehaw, FL
100000010101112 Posts |
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#11 |
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Aug 2002
3×52×7 Posts |
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