Thread: A tentative question View Single Post
2020-07-16, 15:01   #34
paulunderwood

Sep 2002
Database er0rr

DCE16 Posts

Quote:
 Originally Posted by devarajkandadai Ok so I have been hasty.here is a summary of my contributions to number theory: Euler's generalization of Fermat's theorem- a further generalization (ISSN #1550 3747- Hawaii international conference on mathematics and statistics-2004) The theorem: let f(x) = a^x + c where a belongs N and is fixed, c belongs to Z and is fixed and x belongs to N. Then a^(x +k*f(x)) + c is congruent to 0 (mod f(x)). Here k belongs to N. Proof is based on Taylor's theorem.
What does Taylor's Theorem have to do with this? Please elaborate.

Last fiddled with by paulunderwood on 2020-07-16 at 15:02