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Old 2007-08-01, 18:11   #2
davar55's Avatar
May 2004
New York City

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Lemma: The probability that a random prime p is a number n is
equal to the probabilty that p-1 is a number n-1.

Proof: Obvious.

Having thus reduced the problem to a much simpler one,
and allowing for infinite regress, the original problem is solved.

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