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Old 2016-12-06, 10:52   #6
Dubslow
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"Bunslow the Bold"
Jun 2011
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Card View Post
Really? (i+1)^2 = 2i and go from there ...

Chris
Fundamentally that's the same answer. In particular, you just noted that pi/4 * 2 == pi/2, which is approximately the same as saying pi/4 * 300 == 5pi/4 pi (like I just failed to do above).

Last fiddled with by Dubslow on 2016-12-06 at 11:02
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