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Old 2019-06-08, 15:52   #5
LaurV
Romulan Interpreter
 
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Jun 2011
Thailand

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Oh, in that way...
That may be true, and not easy to prove.

First impression is that the average gap after p' is still log(p'), and the smaller of the two twins may have nothing to do with it. But on the other hand, strange things may happen after twins... (think primorials, by this logic, the average gap after a primorial +/-1 should still be log(x+/-1), but is not).


Edit: crossposted, my reply was for robert's post

Last fiddled with by LaurV on 2019-06-08 at 15:53
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