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Old 2017-09-14, 18:02   #9
jwaltos
 
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Apr 2012
Brady

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Quote:
Originally Posted by xilman View Post
Where does this come from? It's far too complicated for it to be at all likely that you made it up on the spur of the moment so it likely arises in the course of some other algebraic manipulations. Knowing its origin could well make a solution easier to find.

BTW, it's not an equation (I don't see a '=' anywhere within it) but a formula. Someone has to do RDS's job for him these days ...
This equation was derived in my attempts to develop a simple method of factoring integers that can be done in polynomial time without the use of quantum based systems OR to determine that the IFP cannot be resolved in poly time. Some of the literature I have cited in prior posts as well as member posts have contributed to the origin of that expression. It's a simple representative result.
By relaxing the condition in Matiyasevich's theorem for `integer only` solutions, Le Chatelier's principle could be invoked (by analogy) where poly time solutions can be made explicit.

And yes, like a blind squirrel searching for nuts, optimism does help but having a `nose` for certain things prevents that squirrel from starving.
I can't elaborate more without redundancy so I'll just say thanks to those who submitted their input and keep beavering away at this.

Last fiddled with by jwaltos on 2017-09-14 at 18:14
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