Quote:
Originally Posted by devarajkandadai
Ok so I have been hasty.here is a summary of my contributions to number theory:
Euler's generalization of Fermat's theorem- a further generalization
(ISSN #1550 3747- Hawaii international conference on mathematics and statistics-2004)
The theorem: let f(x) = a^x + c
where a belongs N and is fixed, c belongs to Z and is fixed and x belongs to N. Then a^(x +k*f(x)) + c is congruent to 0 (mod f(x)).
Here k belongs to N.
Proof is based on Taylor's theorem.
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What does Taylor's Theorem have to do with this? Please elaborate.