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Old 2020-07-16, 15:01   #34
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Sep 2002
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Originally Posted by devarajkandadai View Post
Ok so I have been is a summary of my contributions to number theory:
Euler's generalization of Fermat's theorem- a further generalization
(ISSN #1550 3747- Hawaii international conference on mathematics and statistics-2004)
The theorem: let f(x) = a^x + c
where a belongs N and is fixed, c belongs to Z and is fixed and x belongs to N. Then a^(x +k*f(x)) + c is congruent to 0 (mod f(x)).
Here k belongs to N.
Proof is based on Taylor's theorem.
What does Taylor's Theorem have to do with this? Please elaborate.

Last fiddled with by paulunderwood on 2020-07-16 at 15:02
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