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Old 2007-07-15, 21:17   #16
Flatlander
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"Chris"
Feb 2005
England

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kosmaj View Post
No, I think it's proven that if k has a prime for one n, then there are primes for infinitely many. But the gaps between primes can be large. See for example k=253 and k=101.
But not proven for k=1?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mersenne_prime
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