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2007-07-15, 21:17   #16
Flatlander
I quite division it

"Chris"
Feb 2005
England

40358 Posts

Quote:
 Originally Posted by Kosmaj No, I think it's proven that if k has a prime for one n, then there are primes for infinitely many. But the gaps between primes can be large. See for example k=253 and k=101.
But not proven for k=1?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mersenne_prime