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Old 2017-07-25, 10:07   #4
Dubslow
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"Bunslow the Bold"
Jun 2011
40<A<43 -89<O<-88

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Quote:
Originally Posted by paul0 View Post
I think you misunderstood. Instead of solving the probability of smoothness, I want to solve for X given B and the probability.
He's saying that going in reverse on that equation (p = some_function_of(X, B), as you're trying to do, isn't very useful because it's not an equation -- only an approximation, and not a very good one. Better to write p ~ some_function_of(X, B), and then note that the "~" is vague enough that undoing "some_function_of" isn't worth the effort.

The links he provides are sources for p ≈ some_better_function_of(X, B). Find those better functions before trying to invert them.
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