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Old 2007-07-15, 13:59   #11
Kosmaj's Avatar
Nov 2003

362210 Posts

Originally Posted by Flatlander View Post
Just a thought. Is it possible for a k to stop producing primes once it has produced one or more?
No, I think it's proven that if k has a prime for one n, then there are primes for infinitely many. But the gaps between primes can be large. See for example k=253 and k=101.
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