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Old 2017-12-22, 18:13   #8
MushNine
 
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Nov 2017
United Kingdom

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Quote:
Originally Posted by LaurV View Post
Even simpler, A+1 = 1 (mod A).
Therefore, (A+1)^n = 1^n = 1 (mod A).
Nothing to prove.

(to be moved to misc math)
Fair enough. I just couldn't find a proof anywhere and thought I might just make sure it's true - at the very least. So I'm glad I achieved a goal of some sort.
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