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Proving, for A > 1, (A+1)^n mod A = 0
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2017-12-20, 23:51
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henryzz
Just call me Henry
"David"
Sep 2007
Cambridge (GMT)
13×19×23 Posts
As it stands I believe it to be false. For n >= 0, it is fairly easy to show that (A+1)^n = 1 mod A.
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