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Old 2006-06-02, 18:45   #10
Damian
 
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May 2005
Argentina

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Thanks for your reply.
The {Since "C1" is equivalent to "derivative exists"} was what I needed to know

So what do you think, is it ok to say: a function is differentiable in the neighborhood of a point A, if and only if its partial derivatives are continious in the neighborhood of A?

In other words, is it a neccesary and sufficient condition for a function to have partial derivatives continious in an interval, to be differentiable there?
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