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lukerichards · 2018-01-15, 22:09

I may be missing something here, but why in the definition of Proth ( $k\cdot2^n + 1$ ) and Reisel ( $k\cdot2^n - 1$ ) is there the requirement that $k < 2^n$ ?

There are primes which exist when $k > 2^n$ so is it for the purposes of more efficient primality testing?

2018-01-15, 22:09	#1
lukerichards "Luke Richards" Jan 2018 Birmingham, UK 2⁵×3² Posts	Proth and Riesel Primes I may be missing something here, but why in the definition of Proth ( $k\cdot2^n + 1$ ) and Reisel ( $k\cdot2^n - 1$ ) is there the requirement that $k < 2^n$ ? There are primes which exist when $k > 2^n$ so is it for the purposes of more efficient primality testing?